In theory, anyhow, the AMT is designed to reduce a taxpayer's benefit from a variety of deductions, credits, and another adjustments.
However, I understood that the 15% rate applicable both to qualified dividends and long-term capital gains was not among the tainted items. In fact form 6251 Part III requires a set of lengthy calculations to deal with
15% rate long term capital gains.
Here's my question, should I expect that a taxpayer with no AMT adjustments, but a substantial AGI, which includes substantial 15% rate long term capital gains to end up owing an AMT?