This happened almost 9 years ago. What I'm wondering is whether I should've deducted a lot more in mileage and other travel costs. This involved my wife's family; she and I filed MFJ.
In-laws (FIL and MIL) as well as wife's one sibling (SIL) lived in FL; we lived in NJ. MIL is living alone in the FIL/MIL jointly owned condo; FIL is in an assisted-living home (Alzheimer's). MIL dies; within a month, SIL gets POA for FIL.
Since FIL is going to spend the rest of his life in a long-term care facility (cost is covered by private insurance, so there's no Medicaid implications), wife and SIL decide to sell the condo, and whatever property in the condo the two of them or the grandchildren (all adults) don't want (the ransacking is amicable) will be given to whatever charities will take it. Also, since wife and I will be itemizing while SIL/BIL won't, SIL as POA for FIL, gives all the remaining property in the apartment to my wife for her to do with as she wishes.
Wife and I drive to FL and take care of donating the property to charity; the total value is about $1100, and the charities give wife the appropriate property-donation receipts.
As I see it, there's no question about the deductibility of the $1100 (the value can be substantiated by inventory, thrift shop price list, and resale value of motorized scooters, and my wife was the legal owner of the property), but what about the mileage I drove and meals and lodging (one night each way and one night in FL if all we had done was drive there, donate the stuff, and drive home). While it's true wife and I (and one of our children) drove to FL for the primary purpose of doing our share of ransacking MIL's apartment and donating what was left to charity, we (1) also make a vacation out of the trip, and (2) would've taken a stateside vacation somewhere that summer anyway; we took it along the Atlantic coast simply because we had a reason to go to FL.