I have a question about buying property for back taxes....
A friend of my wife has fallen into a financial abyss. They had a family business, located in a building. The biz basically fell on hard times, and was sold off. They kept the building and have been trying to sell it for the past couple of years. The husband recently died, and she is now left with all the financial issues.
One thing that has surfaced, is the building.... We don't know all the facts....
It might have a mortage, or a loan from their personal home to pay for it... Anyway, they have not paid the taxes for the past year - about $14k - It appears that someone else has picked up the taxes & paid them. She told my wife that if they don't pay their taxes in X amount of time, this other party will own the property for "back taxes".
Just wondering how this works - and again I don't know if there is a mortage and how that would blend into the equation for "getting the building".
It just doesn't seem right that a $600k building could be "sold" for back taxes.
tnx for the enlightenment and education :)
a reply from a CPA friend - here is how it works.
At some point when property taxes are not paid the county sells the property for "back taxes" The owner of the property has a certain length of time,I think two years to redeem the property from the purchaser by paying off the back taxes and the substantial penalty and interest for late payment.
If the taxes are not "redeemed" the title to the property goes to the person who has bought the taxes leins.
If there is a mortgage the mortgage holder should keep track of the tax leins so that they don't lose the property.
People are in the "business" of acquiring tax leins and hope they get redeemed because the interest rate is substantial. Here in AZ it is 16% of the taxes.