> But if it were a partnership and he was entitled to half the
>> proceeds from the beginning, he was immediately half owner
>> of the partnership.
> Not so. The partnership default is by percentage ownership,
> but the written agreement should have clearly stated that
> this partner received half the gains and profits upon the
> sale.
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> Me thinks there wasn't any written agreement here.
there wasn't a written agreement in 1994 but there was in
1995 after we settled the lawsuit. The original verbal agreement was for us to share the profits 50/50 and the settlement agreement signed in 1995 stated this also.
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