Re: Is the Credit Shelter Trust a Grantor Trust?

Oct 08, 2007 1 Replies

Stuart Bronstein wrote:



jba wrote:
>> Husband is the primary beneficiary of the wife's
>> testamentary credit shelter trust.
>>
>> Since the trust allows the husband's inter vivos
>> distribution of corpus to one or more descendants without a
>> reasonably definite standard, it does not meet the
>> requirements for an exception under =A7674(b)(5). As a
>> result, I have concluded that (1) the trust is a grantor
>> trust for income tax purposes under =A7674(a), and (2) the
>> trust assets are not includable in the surviving spouse's
>> estate at death under =A72036 or =A72038 despite the
>> retained beneficial interest or powers.
> I think your problem is that the husband is not the
> "grantor" so §674 does not apply. Remember that a credit
> shelter trust is generally made up of assets belonging to
> the deceased spouse and not the surviving spouse.
>
> The income is taxed to the husband because income
> distributed from a complex trust is taxed to the recipient.
>
> Whether or not the assets are included in the surviving
> spouse's estate is determined under §2056, not 2036 or 2038.
>
> Of course I'd have to read the precise wording of the trust
> to be sure, but that's normally how credit shelter trusts
> are drafted.

Thanks for the input and for helping to focus the issues. If the surviving spouse can't be the "grantor" for tax purposes because it is the decedent's trust---Then, are we sure the beneficiary can't be the owner for tax purposes under 674? What if he had the power to add a class of beneficiaries--like wives of descendants or charities? What if he had the power of substitution?--see 675(4)(c)--675 also says "grantor". What if he can take a market-rate interest loan from the trust without putting up "adequate" security? See 675(3). I don't think any of these powers would cause the trust to be included in the surviving spouse's estate, yet they are rarely given. The power of substitution power would be a natural one to include. Think of it this way--if it were a grantor trust, the "owner" can exchange assets with the trust's assets without a sale occurring--for example high basis assets can be exchanged with low-basis trust assets, thereby getting a step-up on them at the owner's death. If it is not a grantor trust, because 675 says "grantor" and the grantor is deceased--then why not give the surviving spouse the ability to substitute assets for equivalent value. Even if there is no basis improvement, I'm sure that it would be a useful power to have in many situations. So, if it doesn't cause an estate tax problem-- and it doesn't--why doesn't anyone give the surviving spouse this power? One answer is because they're afraid it might make it a grantor trust, and that might somehow make it more likely to be included in the surviving spouse's estate--just a guess. It may me just a holdover--doing it the same old way bygone days when individual rates were significantly higher than trust tax rates. Finally, suppose also that I don't care if the bypass trust gets included in the surviving spouses' estate, e.g. the total would be less than the exemption. What powers or actions would produce a grantor trust result in the meantime without changing the basic purposes of the trust? Any additional thoughts would be appreciated.



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Only a grantor could be treated as a grantor under §674. A beneficiary, or other person, might be treated as a grantor under § 678, if the statute provides that the person is treated that way. Under that section a beneficiary can be taxed on trust income to the extent he (briefly) has or had the power, exercisable only by himself, to distribute principal to himself.

You still haven't given all the information requested, and if it's a trust qualifying under §2056 that could add a level of complication. But normally those rules apply only to grantors, not to anyone else, except as noted above.

That's done frequently in §2056 trusts. The trustee has the ability to allocate property to either the A trust or the B trust, as long as each trust is funded with assets with the proper values.

It depends on what purposes you mean. There are two basic purposes of these trusts. One is to avoid probate. The other is to avoid unnecessary estate taxes. By definition it's not a "bypass" trust if it's included in the surviving spouse's estate, becase in that case it would not bypass that estate. Just tell us exactly what you are trying to accomplish, and you might get a useful answer. But so far vague questions really don't have any practical meaning. Stu

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