Same question as last year -- My financial inst reports all payments to me to the IRS. This includes a lot of items of return of capital on GNMAs, but does not include a date of purchase or cost basis. IRS now separates these from the other capital gains so it is easy to see them. Last year I entered what amounts to a fictitious date and corrected the zero basis to be the same as the payment. TurboTax does not complain, so I wonder if this is legal. The effect is, I think, correct. Any comments?