I sold my entire investment in a mutual fund that I have been holding and reinvesting dividends in for many years.
I will let the mutual fund tell me what the avg (or total) basis is.
But preliminary information from the broker suggests that "they" (the MF? the broker?) treated the entire basis as long-term, even though some of the reinvested dividends were within the last 12 months before the sale.
Is that correct? Or should the basis be allocated to long-term and short-term in the proportion of the recent reinvested dividends to the total?
For example, if I held and sold 1000 shares, including 100 shares resulting from reinvested dividends during the last 12 months, should the ST basis be
900 times the avg basis and the LT basis be 100 times the avg basis?Or for mutual funds, are we allowed to treat all of the sold shares as long-term if we are using the avg basis, assuming that at least some of our investment was indeed long-term?