I find what looks to me like some possibly circular or undefined language regarding this, just curious if I'm making a mountain out of a molehill...
Scenario: California resident has a collection of items acquired for personal use over many years -- for example, comic books, toys, records, or video tapes. Now he begins to sell the items via a website, say E-Bay or something similar. The website collects a listing commission from the seller for each item sold. The seller invoices the buyer directly and ships the item directly.
For the seller, this is a hobby, he doesn't particularly care if he ever sells everything, it's just an alternative to way to clear out his garage without just tossing or giving away the items. In fact, it's basically a virtual, on-line garage sale.
Suppose he sells anywhere from 10-40 items in the first year, at an average of $5/item plus shipping costs. Is he required to collect sales tax from residents of California? Would the answer change if he sold
100 items at an average of $10/item (sales tax if all sold in California would be $92)? In other words, what is the cutoff, especially when he doesn't really know in advance how many items he will sell, or when? Would the answer be any different if he set up his own web site to list the items?Finally, assuming the owner paid CA sales tax himself when most of these items were originally purchased, but many years ago at a much lower rate than the current one, how would that affect the ultimate result, if at all?