I was asked about a situation where a $4 million property incurs $1 million in damages, covered by insurance. The property was in the process of being sold as a part of a 1031 transaction. The buyer wants to buy the property as is, and reduce the price by $1 million, which would cause the seller problems in the 1031.
As far as I'm aware, if the seller doesn't use his insurance proceeds but replaces the property within two years, the receipt of insurance proceeds isn't taxable. But more important, the insurance payout would normally just reduce the owner's basis, not be taxable unless the payout exceeded the property's basis.
The accountant for the seller is saying the insurance payout is definitely taxable in this situation. He is proposing that the seller agree to put the $1 million back into repairs of the property as a part of the sale transaction.
I don't see a problem with the accountant's approach, but is that really necessary? I wouldn't think so.
How wrong am I here?
Thanks.