Land Encumbrance

My grandmother died almost 25 years ago. Her estate was split evenly between her two children, my mother and aunt. However, since the aunt had died, that 50% went to the one grandchild, my cousin, on that side of the family. There was some undeveloped land as part of the estate, which then was jointly owned by my mother and my cousin. My mother has now passed away, and her portion of the land is now being passed on to multiple children. So, the land is now half owned by one person, and half owned by 6 people. At first it seemed the correct thing for estate valuation was to just take the county tax value of the property. However, I've been reading enough here to understand that the land is considered encumbered to the estate due to the half ownership of the cousin. It would be very difficult to sell this land to developers, as he would prefer that it stay in the family and either left alone, next to a family house, or another house put on it for a family member. So, instead of what the value of the land is to condo developers, we're limited to a smaller price. In the 25 years that my cousin and mother jointly owned the property, they were not able to get it settled. (Not that they worked real hard at it, but the fact remains that the land is 1/2 owned by someone who would prefer not to sell). As such, I believe I have a legitimate argument that the land is encumbered at this point and the value of the land should be reduced for estate valuation. Having said all that, my question is, how do you quantify the encumbrance and come up with a value for the land? Obviously I'd like to say the land is nearly worthless and not pay taxes on it. I can see where that wouldn't fly with the IRS. But I truly believe it isn't worth as much as the appraisal due to the difficulty in selling it. Any help out there? Thanks.

Reply to
Drew.Blaha
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You are correct. The value is considrably less, but what value, and for what purpose are you asking? Your mother's Federal Estate Value (now your childrens' tax basis) was established at her date of death. Unless her estate is subject to FET tax you would want this appraisal value to be as HIGH as possible.. If her estate is subjects to FET you'd want it as LOW as possible. Hopefully you sttll have time to juggle it on her FET return.. Your cousins' 1/2 is valued at their mother's date of death value 25 years ago, but will step-up when she dies. All this is wrong if the house is in a trust that does not vest on subsequent deaths.

There are appraisal firms that specaliize in estate valuations of property whose value is less than normal. Their valuation can be quite a pleasant shock

ed.

Reply to
ed

Why would the cousin's half receive a basis step-up? I see no community property nor surviving spouse issue here.

Any good appraiser will first compute the 100% valuation before figuring out the discount value for any "complications" on the property. That helps to cap the IRS should they challenge the discount (in that if they wish to exceed the 100% appraised amount, then they have a second issue of challenging the appraisal also).

For how to determine the discount, look for "family limited partnership (FLP)" case law.

Reply to
D. Stussy

There's a stepped up basis on any inherited property. Community property going to a spouse allows a double stepped up basis, but not the only one.

The only problem I see with the discount is that in family limited partnerships the other owners have no right to have their property sold as a unit - it's in the partnership agreement.

But absent an agreement, an owner (especially of real property) has the right to partition - to have the entire property sold as a unit, and be paid off in full. If I worked for the IRS I'd deny a blockage discount in this kind of case, because there's really no blockage from a legal standpoint.

Stu

Reply to
Stuart Bronstein

Yes, but the cousin got his step-up when he inherited his half from his parent. He's not entitled to a step-up when his aunt dies of which he receives NO share.

True, but it's the closest thing we have to the situation that's easy to find case law on. It is a family partnership with one 1/2, and six 1/12ths.

That assumes that it can be further partitioned. We'd need to know the size of the parcel....

Reply to
D. Stussy

Partition can mean physically dividing a parcel of property and giving each owner his own portion.

But if a physical division is not practical, partition means selling the whole property as a unit, and dividing the sale proceeds. In a family limited partnership or similar situation, the parties waive their right to partition. But without that waiver, partition is generally an absolute right.

In this case OP may have the right to go into court and have the property sold to the highest bidder. If so, there is no blockage, he is entitled to get full value for his share, so there should be no blockage discount.

On a quick glance at the cases, I haven't seen any where this precise issue came up. But the minority discount is normally given because someone has only the legal right to sell his own interest, and that if it's a minority interest he won't get full value. The difference is that when partition is not precluded, the minority owner may have the right to have the whole property sold, not just his share.

Stu

Reply to
Stuart Bronstein

Ed, Please ship this junk before posrting

Dick

Reply to
Dick Adams

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