Does anyone know the tax consequences when a marriage is annulled rather than terminated by divorce?
I'm looking at a situation where people were married for years, but the marriage was actually invalid due to the husband having already been married, and that marriage was never dissolved.
I'm familiar with the concept of "putative marriage" under state law - when one of the spouses actually believes the marriage is valid, that spouse is not penalized and the marriage is treated for most relevant (financial) purposes that it was valid.
But do you know if the IRS takes the same position? I haven't been able to determine that. I found two Tax Court cases that tend to support that, but those are both in reference to German law, and don't specifically decide this issue.
Any thoughts would be appreciated. Thanks.