Question about filing taxes after divorce

Just a quick question that I cant seem to find the answer to anywhere:

Me and my wife are about to file for divorce. When it comes to tax time next year when we report last years tax refund to our income for this year, how is that handled now that we will be filing separately? Do we split in half and each claim half of the income amount of our refund? Should it be based on the percentage if income each of us make like child support is. Or does it not matter who reports what percentage as long as 100% of the refund is claimed between the two ex spouses? I looked all over the internet and the IRS site but couldn't find this particular question addressed.

Thanks so much for any help!

Reply to
The Jew
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snipped-for-privacy@cox.net (The Jew) posted:

If you're asking about a refund for overpaid or overwithheld federal taxes, there is no tax consequence for that, since it is not considered to be income, for _federal_ purposes.

However, the federal tax refund might come into play as an item on any _state_ income tax return -- and any state tax _refund_ would be an issue on both of your next years' federal returns.

As long as the total amount of the refund is accounted for between your two separate returns, there should be no problem. Now that you have identified this as an issue, you could simply add this to your itemized lists of "divorce settlement agreements" -- either to split such items

50/50 or by whatever percentage you agree would be fair.

Bill

Reply to
Bill

The answer depends on where you live:

Community property state: 50% each - by law (unless you also got married in the year the refund is for).

Other states: See the other response that has posted before mine.

Reply to
D. Stussy

I am in Arizona which I believe is a community property state. So is it the law that it be split 50/50?

Thanks in advance!

Reply to
The Jew

Until it stops being community property, which I understand occurs when the couple splits, even in not yet divorced.

Reply to
Arthur Kamlet

Not true. Marital community ends when the couple have a court order or a signed separation agreement ending the community. Ceasing to cohabitate will not end the community.

Reply to
Tempuser

According to Pub 555, "In some states, the marital community ends when the spouses permanently separate, even if there is no formal agreement. Check your state law."

I've been told that is the case in California, but can't find a specific cite.

-Mark Bole

Reply to
Mark Bole

what if some of the income for that year was separate property?

Reply to
Wallace

I don't know about Arizona in particular, but life is generally more complex than this.

The Significance of the Separation Date Community property begins to accrue on the date of marriage and ends when the marriage is officially over. The date upon which a marriage is officially over is determined by state laws and may occur on any of the following dates:

a.. The date of "legal" separation b.. The date of "physical" separation c.. The day the Petition or Complaint is filed and/or assigned a case, docket or index number d.. The date the judge or commissioner grants your divorce, dissolution or legal separation e.. The day your divorce agreement or judgment is filed f.. The day you and your husband choose or a judge or commissioner assigns It is common for husbands and wives to fight over separation dates. Their disagreements are usually financially motivated and can significantly affect the size of a divisible community estate. For example, if a husband is the primary breadwinner and his wife a stay-at-home mom, he may want to establish an earlier date of separation because his wages, income and bonuses earned after the date of separation will be characterized as his separate, not community, property. His wife may, however, want to establish a later date of separation to maximize the divisible community estate. There are a number of criteria used to determine the actual date of separation and if a party wishes, he or she may ask the court to schedule a date of separation trial or hearing, where each spouse puts forth evidence to convince the judge or commissioner that his or her proposed date of separation is correct.

Reply to
Wallace

,

not yet divorced.

However, see also IRC Section 66 for nonrecognition of CP. That can occur PRIOR to the divorce being final.

Reply to
D. Stussy

My reply was specific to AZ.

Reply to
Tempuser

In California property only belongs to the community when it is earned by one of the spouses while they are both married and living together, or are separated but not permenantly (in their subjective opinions).

See Family Code §771.

Stu

Reply to
Stuart A. Bronstein

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