Refuse Tax

The town I live in sends me a bill, called "Refuse Tax" twice a year for sewer useage. Is this deductible as an itemized deduction?

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Reply to
AM
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No, if it is fee for sewer service. Yes, if it is added to your property tax bill.

Missy Doyle

Reply to
mytax

A fee by any other name would stink as much. (sorry, coulndt resist.) It's a fee, and not a tax, therefore........ no.

ChEAr$, Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA Tue 8 Mar 2005

Reply to
Harlan Lunsford

But if a locality did not charge directly for "refuse" and included it in the normal budget and billed it along with the regular property tax it would be deductible.

-- Frederick E. Jorden

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Reply to
Frederick Jorden

Huh? "You can probably get away with it, but it's not deductible even if it's on your property tax bill" would be correct, but the above statement is out-and-out wrong. It doesn't matter how the refuse authority bills it, it's not a tax and it's not deductible. If there's ever another TCMP I suspect taxing authority

1098-type reporting will become law.

-- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD

Reply to
Phil Marti

When I lived in Cleveland, OH the city provided trash collection and never itemized that, or any other specific service, on my property tax bill.

-- Vic Roberts Replace xxx with vdr in e-mail address.

Reply to
Victor Roberts

I'm afraid I must disagree, in part, with the answers prviously given. In the unlikely event that the "tax" is both independent of actual sewer connection, and based on a percentage of the value of the property, it IS a deductible property tax. If not, then it's NOT a deductible property tax, and would only be deductible (in part) as a rental or a business expense. Whether it is on the same bill on another town, county or state property tax is irrelevant.

Reply to
Arthur L. Rubin

The town called it a "tax" - calling a tax a fee does not make it a fee (to paraphrase Lincoln). A 'fee' would be something that was calculated directly from costs, whereas a tax is calculated indirectly and spread among the users.

Reply to
Rick Merrill

Exactly the case, yes. But if they "refuse' to do this, then no. ChEAr$, Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA Sat 12 Mar 2005

Reply to
Harlan Lunsford

And I'm afraid that I must disagree, in part, with your disagreement.

I don't believe it is absolutely essential for the so-called "tax" to be based on VALUE so long as the other conditions you mentioned are met. I recall a case where the deduction of a tax based on "front footage" (rather than value) was allowed because the tax was applied "generally" and was NOT seen as a measure of services provided to a particular property.

But, I'd guess that trying to replicate that fact pattern in actual practice would be difficult.

MTW

Reply to
MTW

Right, just as calling a fee a "tax" don't make it so, either, to paraphrase Frederick above. (We don't quote that other guy down here.) ChEAr$, Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA Sun 13 Mar 2005

Reply to
Harlan Lunsford

Thanks. I missed that one. I may need to recalculate MY taxes, as one of the acreage charges on my property taxes is supposedly allocated to slope maintenance.

Reply to
Arthur L. Rubin

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