In 1989 my mother spent 10,000 dollars on a single premium insurance policy. Every year, until 2004 she took out some amount which was (As far as I can tell from the records) slightly less than the interest amount she accrued. She decided to cash the whole thing in this year. She received (before taxes) a little over 12K. However, the insurance company is reporting her taxable gains as about 26K. looking at the records the 26K = the total she took out, (+ 12K-10K) + the sum of "Interest Capitalizations"* which total about 14.5K. As far as I can tell, she never touched the "Interest Capitalizations" but they are part of her "Loan Balance". Can anyone explain this? Will she have to pay taxes on 26K worth of income? According to the records, they gave her about 7K of the 5K and took the rest out for taxes already which seems rather steep.
*The "Interest Capitalizations" are a series of figures which goes approximately like this: (dollar figures) 60, 129, 200, 277. 356, 432, 507, 587, 674, 768, 869, 857, 950, 1053, 1,156, 1275, 1271, 1467. This looks like a running total of interest, but it is the sum of these values that is used to determine the "loan balance".Very confused. Thanks in advance for any insight.