Quick Summary of our tax situation:
- My wife & I both lived in NY from Jan-Apr 2007 . I worked for a TX- based employer while we were resident in NY.
- I moved to TX in May 07 , and continued to work for the same employer.
- My wife moved to CA in May 07 to start a new job.
My question is only regarding CA state taxes. I'd assumed that we'd only need to pay CA state taxes on my wife's CA-sourced income from
05/2007 onwards as a part-year resident, since I had no CA-source income. However, I've read that since TX is a community property state, half of what I earned belongs to her. So it seems that we'd need to pay CA state taxes on all of my wife's CA-sourced income PLUS 1/2 of the TX- sourced income I earned from May till the end of the year.
Is this correct ? Is there any way to establish that my wife's domicile is not in CA, or otherwise exclude my TX-sourced income from being subject to CA state taxes ? I guess I'm quite confused on what her domicile state needs to be. If it helps, we've both spent far more time in TX in the past (5+ years) than in CA. However, we don't own any property and rent apartments in both locations. Also, we're both currently employed indefinitely but are looking to move to either state if we can both find jobs there. Is there a presumption of domicile in CA based on employment/stay there, or does there have to be definite intent to stay in CA permanently in order to establish domicile ?
Thanks, thound