I presently own an investment property which has a slight annual profit after depreciation. My AGI (MFJ) is over $150,000. Call the net profit zero, it's pretty close.
Assume I buy another property that will show a loss.
a) If I have a loss before depreciation, can I take the loss? (I'm guessing not, since part of my overall loss position is still depreciation on the first property. Or maybe I can if the two properties are considered separate tax entities. I don't know.)
b) Assume for simplicity that the net gain/loss before depreciation is zero. Do I simply claim zero depreciation for the year, and then whenever I sell the property someday, the basis is cost less whatever depreciation I claimed? (In other words, I don't get the tax deduction now, but it doesn't reduce my basis and therefore does reduce my taxable profit when I sell it.)
c) In the final example, let's say I have $6000 depreciation on the first property and $3000 on the second, and I have a net gain of $6000 before depreciation. Is there some formula by which I have to allocate the actual $6000 depreciation I'm allowed to take between the two properties?