A friend of mine got divorced some years back (10ish I would think) but they did not sell the house at that time. It stayed in join names but he moved out while she and the children continued to live there.
He subsequently bought his own house where he now lives.
They have now sold the jointly owned house and have agreed to split the proceeds so that he gets 1/3 and she gets 2/3.
He has been told (not sure by who but it would be either a solicitor or accountant) that he has to pay CGT on the whole amount (not just his third, or even on a half). She has no CGT liability as she has lived in the house until it was sold.
Is this right or has my friend been given incorrect advice as it doesn't sound right to me that he is going to have to pay tax on the entire value of something he jointly owns and therefore on money that belongs to his ex-wife?