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House inheritance

My father bought his sisters house part as an investment and partly to help her out. He gave her the money to buy it(about 10,000) and she bought it. Its all in her name. It was an ex council home and they got it cheaper if that makes a difference. Its now about 12 years later and shes about 75. Shes done ok because shes lived rent free for the last 12 years and my dads done ok as hes put up 13,000(he paid 3,000 when the rest of the houses got updated so hers was updated) and its probably worth about 35,000. We suspect in around 5 years she'll end up in a home. This is something my father never thought off as he always thought she'd end up with him(hes 20 years younger) but hes moving abroard and she wouldn't move. What are the implications. Will she be forced to sell her home to pay for her care(she has about 3000 in savings) ? How could we get round this? Cheers for any advice

Reply to
robert
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Eh?

It's either hers or it's his. If it's hers, how has *he* done well? If he *has* done well, it must be his, and he could be thought of as having gifted her the right to live there rent free as opposed to having gifted her the ownership. The fact that you mention "rent" at all suggests that it's really he who owns it (even though she is the "paper" owner (since you say it's all in her name) this doesn't mean that he's not the *real* owner).

Easy. If he's the real owner, then it's not hers to sell. She's only renting it (for free). So she can't be forced.

Reply to
Ronald Raygun

Eh? If it's "all in her name" how can she be anything other than "the

*real* owner"?

Reply to
Troy Steadman

If it's in her name, she's the paper owner. She might not be the beneficial owner. For most purposes, beneficial ownership is more "real" then paper ownership.

Reply to
Ronald Raygun

Not for one moment am I doubting you RR, but how does this work?

Say Mrs A lives in a council house, and has the opportuntiy to buy it at Hefty Percent% discount. How can Mr B her brother (say) buy the house through her, with her "the paper owner", while he remains "the beneficial owner"?

Reply to
Troy Steadman

In exactly the same way is if it were any other house, without any discount. It would of course be fraudulent of Mr B to gain unfair access to the discount in this way, given that Mrs A, not he, is entitled to it, but that's another matter.

Reply to
Ronald Raygun

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