Redundancy question

This will depend upon the terms of the redundancy. The company are at liberty to have a term that makes it not payable in this circumstance.

He can be.

It will depend upon (a) the terms of the redundancy, and (if appropriate) (b) company 1 finding out. There is no legal reason why the employee cannot be paid their gardening leave and redundancy money if they find, and start, another job before the end of the GL. It's all down to what Company 1 want to do.

tim

"zero" wrote

I did. I wasn't dumb enough to volunteer that I'd found a job. Why should I save someone who wasted me 33,000?

I would think so, but he wouldn't have a P45 to present his new employer with. I believe, however, that all a P45 is really used for is to obtain a tax coding, and that you can bypass the employer and ask the tax office to issue a coding for you without a P45.

This is very handy if, for example, you inflated your previous earnings in order to obtain a decent rise and you don't want your new employer to find this out by looking at your P45.

Usually, I guess. Redundo is paid to enable you to survive while you find another job. It's not a right (well, in excess of stautory it's not) and if it's a not a need either there's a strong chance of it being discretionary.

so really , get a copy of the HR rep of exactly what the redundancy policy are

as in a legal document not some FAQ rubbish

thanks

thanks

"John Redman" wrote in message news:clh94u$8i1$ snipped-for-privacy@news8.svr.pol.co.uk...

discretionary.