(alt accounting wise ones - sorry for the long crossposting. Would you be so kind as to proffer a quick Usenet opinion on the discussion below? )
>>>>> >>>>>
>>>>>>The mortgage is an account receivable for the lender. They protect
>>>>>>their investment by making you buy insurance. If you buy insurance >>>>>>and
>>>>>>pay for the whole year upfront, technically it's a liability for the
>>>>>>insurance company because they "owe" you coverage. As time goes on,
>>>>>>their liability becomes less and less.
>>>>>
>>>>> Ahh, Walter, you've been warned about tossing out terms willy-nilly.
>>>>> It's not a liability. It's a pre-paid expense.
>>>>
>>>>It's a pre-paid expense on Walter's books. It's a liability on the books >>>>of
>>>>the insurance company.
>>>
>>> No it's not. Premiums received are income. There is no way to
>>> determine the liability factor of an insurance policy in force. You
>>> can have a reserve or contingency amount for anticipated expenses
>>> based on payouts, but the premiums received are strictly P&L income. >>
>>I've admittedly not done the books for an insurance company, but we're
>>talking about a homeowner's premium. A single payment on a policy covers a
>>period of (usually) 12 months at a time.
>>
>>So, it seems logical that when the insurance company receives the money,
>>1/12th of the premium money is immediately income (if the policy is
>>effective ASAP), and the rest is deferred ( or unearned) income, which is >>a
>>liability. It is coverage for a period of time in the future. During that
>>time, the customer can cancel >>the policy and the amount of any
>>unused premium will be refunded to the policy holder. That is why I still
>>believe the unused portion of the policy would be a liability, not income. >
> No, it doesn't work that way. A liability is an amount owed. Just
> because the coverage may be canceled, nothing is owed until the
> decision to cancel is made.
It isn't owed, but the income hasn't been earned yet. They haven't earned that income yet because they haven't provided any service, or coverage.
(Also - to clarify for those just tuning in - I'm not talking about tax purposes. I'm talking about bookkeeping for the sole purpose of generating a correct P&L statement.)
It's not specific to insurance. Take rent, for example. If you pay
> your rent a month in advance, it's income to the landlord even though
> you haven't lived there for the full 30 days. Pay it a year in
> advance and it's still income. There's no liability factor.
Yes, there is a liability factor, because you have received payment for a service you have not provided. I'll not back down here because of this I am absolutely sure.. Again, insurance books and premiums received might be handled differently, but I can absolutely guarantee you that if a tenant pays rent in advance that the unearned rental income is supposed to be deferred on the books as a liability until the rent is actually incurred.
Think - what would happen if the tenant paid their rent 5 years in advance? In your methodology, you would only see income once every five years, but you would have offsetting expenses through the entire period, which would skew the actual P&L terribly - showing a huge profit the year the monies were received, and losses in the 4 +subsequent years. What would happen to your P&L if you received 5 years of pre-paid rent in December of '04, for a lease that began in Jan '05?
Buy a tank of gasoline and it's an expense the minute you pay for it
> even though you haven't used it. Pay for a year's magazine
> subscription and it's income to the magazine from the day it's
> received.
A tank of gasoline is the purchase of a supply, and you're replacing the tank you just used up. You could make a case (based entirely on theory, and completely devoid of common sense) for purchasing a magazine subscription and subsequently recording it as a prepaid expense, but even I, the nickel-and-dime queen, wouldn't mess with an amount that tiny. Recording it would not have a material effect on the books. (If it did, there are bigger problems in the company. Much bigger problems.) Best just to expense it and be done with it.
However, I would hazard an educated guess that the magazine people are indeed handling their revenue on that sale in the manner I have described, by deferring the unearned income. They can't pair off income and expense properly if they do not pair off in the same accounting period. If they have not shipped magazines that people have already paid for, then that money is a liability on their books.
Tell me an example of something in some other field where a pre-paid
> expense is a liability.
Not on the same books.
The insurance payment that Walter made is a pre-paid expense on Walter's books, on that we're agreed. So, why wouldn't it be unearned income on the payee's books? They actually fit quite well together, and the theory is actually exactly the same if you think about it.
If conditions change, a reversing entry is
> made to refund the unused portion.
That's just so wrong. According to GAAP, income is recognized when it is earned, not when it is received. Help - I need back-up!
A