I posted this as a continuation of another thread I'd started on a different subject, but it didn't get any responses, so I thought I'd post it on its own. Any input would be appreciated.
I generally receive deposits ahead of time. I have set up a receivables account into which I enter these deposits. I then enter in that same account the invoice, post dated (using the actual end date of the project), and apply the deposit to it, thus allowing me to generate an unpaid invoices report.
So, I'm fine up until now.
Here's where I start to get confused: I have someone consulting with me on this job. The agreement is that he gets paid after the client pays me. I'd like to track the payables to this consultant along with the receivables due from the client.
What I've done is set up a payables account to him into which I enter a bill, post dated (to the same end date of the project), to a consulting category. When the payment comes in, I will effectively pay that bill.
Is there a way to combine the above entries? In other words, right now I enter information into my general receivables account to reflect the deposit and the invoce to the client, and then do a separate entry in the consultant's payables account to reflect what I owe him. I think what I'm doing is sound, even if it's not the best way to do it. I do this often, so it would be nice if I could do it in fewer steps.
Now, let's make it even more complicated: I also do work for this consultant. In other words, I have both payables to him and receivables from him. I use an account which tracks only his receivables (rather than the general receivables account) so I always have an at-a-glance total of how much he owes me. In general, I pay him more than I bill him.
Said consultant -- whose accounting practices are questionable at best
-- would rather I deduct my receivables from the payables, issue a check for the balance, and thus reduce the amount on the 1099 he'll eventually get from me. Is this sound accounting? If it's OK, how would I accomplish it in QB? If I make a transfer from the consultant's payables account into his receivables account, that amount will still be reflected on his 1099 and will show as income for me (since it's used to pay the receivables account).
OK, I've confused myself. If anyone can decipher that and point me in the right direction, I'd appreciate it.