Just giving this a shot.
I have a client who wants to look back as many years as possible for potentially amending. I know that if one owes, that will always be due. But this client owes to the IRS about $850 for the Year 2003. Based on the language from the
1040x Instructions,"3 years after the date you filed the original return or within 2 years after the date you paid the tax, whichever is later" it seems legally that this client still has the right to file for a credit for the Year
2003. (Yet intuitively I feel that I am reading this incorrectly. Can someone clarify this for me? Thanks.
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