This is an odd situation to describe, I think. The easiest question to answer is whether an actual filing of a tax form is required by law, assuming income falls above the minimum (I know there is one, but don't remember what it is)?
Someone I know has not filed any forms for about 5 years. He periodically gets a letter from the IRS and writes them a check. "We" cannot ask him what the letter says in detail or how much he sends them for a number of reasons which aren't important here. Best guess is, from the person closest to him, is that he estimates his income based on his knowledge of what he gets in Social Security, a possible pension, and some modest amounts of dividends. At one time, this "close person" was told that he grosses about $40K a year,nothing withheld, but that could be wrong too.
The IRS can obviously pick up the fact that no form has been filed. They also must be aware of his SS earnings and anything coming from a 1099DIV/INT. Do they calculate what the taxpayer owes and tell him the amount and thus are satisfied that they get money, assuming it comes close to their calculation? Is the lack of a formal tax filing not an issue at all or could he be subject to any kind of fine or penalty in the future?