Scenario:
- Taxpayer has three separate accounts.
- Prior to any of this taxpayer has zero shares in XYZ anywhere.
- On the same day, taxpayer buys some XYZ in all three accounts.
- On a later day -- but less than 30 days out -- taxpayer liquidates the XYZ position at a loss in one of the accounts.
- Taxpayer does not do any more purchasing of XYZ in any account for at least 30 more days from that sale.
Is this a wash sale?
On one hand it seems to fit the literal rules -- there was a sale at a loss within 30 days of a purchase.
On the other hand, there was a net decrease in the combined XYZ position and that net decrease lasted over 30 days from both the original purchases and the sale so there's no "I'm realizing a loss but am basically negating the economic effect of the sale on me" thing going on.
So is it a wash sale or not?