Is this residence transfer tax-free?

Is this kosher?

In 2007, Anne bought a small one-bedroom condo for $240k. She lived there. She married in early 2015. She and hubby needed bigger quarters. In September, 2015, they moved to bigger quarters but kept the condo and rented it out. The condo is now worth somewhere between $400k and $600k, but probably around $450k.

If she sells the condo before September 1st, she will have lived in it for two of the previous five years. Hence, the profit is tax free. Even though hubby only lived in it for a few months, do they get the $500k exclusion?

However, she really doesn't want to sell it.

Case 1: Just suppose she sells it to Bob (her father) for $450k. Anne holds a 100% mortgage at a market rate of interest. Three months later, Bob sells it back to Anne for $450k and repays the loan. When Anne eventually sells the condo, is her basis $450k?

Case 2: Suppose the sales "price" is $600k, the upper limit of acceptable. Is her basis now $600k?

Case 3: Can she sell it to her hubby for the step-up in basis He never was on the original deed.

Reply to
NadCixelsyd
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That looks to me like a textbook example of a sham transaction, one with no economic purpose other than to avoid taxes. I wouldn't do it.

I really wouldn't do that.

There are special rules for transfers of property between spouses. See 26 USC 1041. Preview:

General rule: No gain or loss shall be recognized on a transfer of property from an individual to (or in trust for the benefit of) a spouse ...

Reply to
John Levine

I haven't gone back to check the statute, but my recollection is that the time requirement must apply to both spouses to get the $500,000 exclusion. Only the ownership requirement is changed.

As John said, it won't get her what she wants. The sale is a sham.

If it's a sham sale, no.

No.

Reply to
Stuart O. Bronstein

In addition to the two answers you already received.... your profit attributable to the depreciation (allowed or allowable) cannot be excluded. So.... all the profit would not be tax-free.

Reply to
Alan

Right. And not only is it not tax free, but it's ordinary income rather than capital gain.

Reply to
Stuart O. Bronstein

Is all the depreciation recaptured as Ordinary Income? Or just depreciation in excess of straight-line depreciation?

Reply to
Not A Clue

I'm pretty sure that all the gain attributable to depreciation will not be eligible for the Section 121 exclusion, but only the part that's in excess of straight-line [if there is any] will be recaptured as ordinary income. The rest of the depreciation [i.e., probably all of it] will be taxed as *unrecaptured section 1250 gain* which is really a section 1231 gain with a different - higher - tax rate than plain ol' long-term capital gain.

Which totally skips right past the "periods nonqualified use" and the gain allocable to those periods, which is (like the gain from depreciation taken) not eligible for the exclusion...

Piece of cake, huh?

Reply to
lotax

I believe this reply contains an error. The recaptured depreciation called unrecaptured Section 1250 gain is taxed as ordinary income. You can see this by looking at the Schedule D Tax Worksheet. That recaptured amount is not treated as a long-term capital gain in the tax calculation. It gets treated as ordinary income. I agree that the amount of gain that can not be excluded is the sum of the recaptured depreciation and the amount of gain attributable to the period of nonqualified personal use.

The OP can look at IRS Pub 523, Sale of Your Home for worksheets that help you compute the taxable gain.

Reply to
Alan

Please consider what I just wrote [about gains recognized, or not] to be subject to the huge caveat in this thread regarding sham transactions designed to avoid/evade income tax.

Reply to
lotax

I'll humbly disagree with that disagreement. The way I see it is that "unrecaptured section 1250 gain" is a subcategory of section 1231 gain and is first netted with other section 1231 gains and losses and then is netted with other long-term capital gains, and if any of it survives the netting process, it's subject to the "special" tax rates for unrecaptured section 1250 gain. Please show me where that is wrong.

Reply to
lotax

It's a capital gain and it's being subject to the special 25% tax rate limitation of IRC section 1(h)(E)(i). As such it's shown in Part II of Schedule D and also on Form 8949.

If it were ordinary income, none of all that confusing, circular, if-then-but-only-if-not-greater-than stuff would be necessary. The tax rate is capped at 25% for the unrecaptured section 1250 gain; otherwise it's just another long-term capital gain.

Run some numbers if that'll help. You won't be able to get the unrecaptured section 1250 gain to be taxed at any rate higher than 25%, which is what would happen if it were taxed as ordinary income!

Reply to
lotax

Well.... this recapture on your main home is going to wind up on Line 12 of the unrecaptured 1250 gain worksheet. It will then find its way to Line 19 in Part III of the Schedule D. This will then force you to use the Schedule D Tax Worksheet to compute gain. Rather than walk you through the lines of that worksheet which will ultimately include the recapture amount as ordinary income, I direct your attention to the following words included with the how do you figure out the gain and exclusion on a home used for business worksheets in Pub 523.

If you used all or part of your home for business or rental after May 6,

1997, you may need to pay back (?recapture?) some or all of the depreciation you were entitled to take on your property. ?Recapturing? depreciation means you must include it as ordinary income on your tax return.
Reply to
Alan

lotax is correct.

Reply to
Taxed and Spent

Okay, I fully agree with Alan when he writes: "*Recapturing* depreciation means you must include it as ordinary income on your tax return."

That's right, f'sure, but the stuff we're talking about here is called **UNrecaptured** section 1250 gain for a reason. It's called "UNrecaptured" because it's *not* recaptured, and it's *not* taxed as ordinary income, and it's *not* subject to the ordinary income tax rates. It's a special case of capital gain and it's **not** "recaptured" and it's *not* taxed as ordinary income.

There are some glitches in my prior post, some errors, but not this one.

Sorry if I might seem sorta negative about this... :)

Reply to
lotax

This is where it all started:

"The recaptured depreciation called unrecaptured Section 1250 gain is taxed as ordinary income."

You are correct in pointing out that this statement is incorrect.

Reply to
Taxed and Spent

I got it. I forgot that it is only additional depreciation that is taxed at ordinary rates. Assuming there was no additional depreciation, then the gain that could not be excluded is taxed as capital gain using the netting procedure and the max rate set in section 1(h).

Reply to
Alan

Let's go all the way back and answer the very first question, the one NadCixelsyd asked in the Original Post: "Is this kosher?"

My answer's "no." How about you?

Reply to
lotax

I don't think there is any disagreement on that point.

Reply to
Alan

Am I correct in that the term "maximum rate" here is a bit misleading? It is the only rate that pertains to unrecaptured 1250 gain. Nothing less, nothing more. Correct?

Reply to
Taxed and Spent

Yes, sec 1(h) sets the max rate at 25%.

Reply to
Alan

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