The recently posted "Property transfer problem" has prompted me to ask about our situation.
We have a house in Suffolk where we live which we own outright, no mortgage. We also have a flat in North London which has an almost paid off mortgage on it, I think there's ten or twenty thousand pounds left to pay off.
We lived abroad for ten years or so in the seventies and eighties and bought the flat as a place to live when on leave in the UK. Since we came back permanently in 1987 it has been rented commercially some of the time, has been empty for periods and has been used by friends and family. Currently our daughter is living there and, while she is still not earning, is paying little or no rent.
We are considering moving abroad again in the next year or two and, after an overlap, may well sell our house in Suffolk. Since this is our primary residence I can see no major tax implications there.
However I'm a bit in the dark about the flat, what would be the best way in the long term of (maybe) transferring it to our daughter or (if she decides not to stay in London) of realising its value tax efficiently?