Hello all. I've been lurking in this newsgroup for a month or two and thought I'd delurk to ask a number of questions re: the above.
Back in December 1990, my SOH and I bought a property to live in for 34,000 (just before the great house price crash!) and took a mortgage for 30,000. We put this house up for sale in 1999 and did not sell it due to only 1 offer of 24,000. We, in the meantime had bought another property which we moved into and so we let the property out. The property has remained let to this day.
We have now decided that we would like to sell this property as it's value has increased to around the 70/75,000 mark and we could make better use of the cash.
If we sell this property, am I'm right in thinking that we would be liable for CGT on the amount that we sell for (say 75,000) minus the amount we paid (34,000) divided between 2 so 75,000 - 34,000 = 41,000 / 2 20,500 each?
I believe taper relief would apply therefore reducing the amount liable for CGT to 70% (maybe 60% with bonus year) or 28,000 (14,000 each)?
What rate will we pay (my wifes a standard tax bracket payer, I'm a higher tax bracket payer).
I can't get my head around main residence elections at all!
If I remortgage (say for 40,000) to do repairs in preparation to sell the house would the gain be measured between the 40,000 and 75,000?
I plan to take profeessional advice on this but who would give me the best professional advice on this : an accountant, financial adviser or tax specialist and how much is the info likely to cost?
Cheers for any help with this
AP