> If you owned the smaller house, you could use the "extra deposit" to pay > down
> > your mortgage, effectively getting a return at the mortgage rate. >
> If you use the money as deposit instead, the extra equity in the house would
> also "effectively [give] a return at the mortgage rate" - because we are
> assuming house price inflation roughly the same as the mortgage rate. >
> Either way (whether you have a 60K mortgage on a 100K house, or a 160K
> mortgage on a 200K house - being 40K equity overall in both scenarios) the
> money you have "invested" in the house is getting a return of the mortgage > rate.
Yes, that was my point. I thought you were trying to imply you could benefit more by making a "mortgage rate" return on a higher deposit from the more expensive house. You are making the same return on your equity however expensive your house.
> I agreed that it was a close call, too close to use to make any reliable
> > prediction about the future. But, that doesn't alter the fact that based > on the
> > last 30 years, mortgage interest rates are (admittedly slightly) more > likely to
> > be higher than house price inflation.
>
> So ... if I toss a coin 31 times and get 15 heads and 16 tails, then would
> you think that "based on the last 31 tosses, the coin is (admittedly
> slightly) more likely to be tails than heads" ? !!
Yes. The clue is "based on the last 31 tosses", rather than based on any other sort of reasoning.
However, with a coin, assuming it is "unbiased", like with lottery numbers, there are far better and more reliable ways to work out the odds than to look to past performance. I don't know of an equally reliable way to work out the odds of house price inflation being greater than or less than mortgage rates. Unlike a coin, there is no intrinsic reason why the odds should be 50:50.