> ... I did not suggest adding her to the deeds, merely to make her a
> co-owner (i.e. beneficial, not legal). This would have no bearing > on the mortgage.
...and...
John Boyle wrote:
...Making X a joint owner (even a mere equitable owner) wont help for IH T either.
This is something I don't understand, and don't seem to be able to Google. I have a wife and adult son "Homey", who lives with us, and an adult son "Romeo", who has left home for good. I am...
1) About to buy 50% of the house I live in and which I already co-own, from my mother's estate, by taking out a mortgage.
2) The house is valued at £400k by the District Valuer, and £200k is the 50% price I am paying.
3) Foxtons value the house at around £900k.
"Homey" is utterly trustworthy, and will move with us into a smaller property. Now seems like an excellent opportunity to give him his inheritance!
CURRENTLY House £400k New mortgage £250k (includes 25k of repayments and £25k for improvements) Value £150K?
Gift to "Homey" of 1/2 of house represents £75k for IHT purposes?
If we sell the house for £850k, less mortgage £250k, ie £600k:
1) He will have £200k to "gift" to "Romeo".
2) I will have £200k to invest in a new £300k house for us to live in.
3) "Homey" puts up the other £100k for the house.
4) He and I have £100k of spare cash, no IHT problems, and £400k of my estate has been distributed at a mere cost of £75k.
My solicitor says I can gift my son his inheritance "by writing it into trust for him" (?), and I presume that is another jargon-laden version of what you are suggesting?
If you genuinely give your house away for IHT purposes, how can it not affect the mortgaging bank?