I'd appreciate any thoughts and comments about the technical and philosophical aspects of the following idea.
I've a second home that currently has no mortage and a CGT exposure when I sell. What I have in mind is to sell it to a "new style" SIPP for a low'ish price and pay some CGT. This will reduce some CGT and acquire a property asset for a good value price for my SIPP. The price will increase in value and will not attract any tax when it's sold within the SIPP wrapper. I'm planning to rent the house to myself at the full market rate. Wouldn't the payments I make to the SIPP for rental, be in effect the same as a pension contribution (without the tax allowance) ie all payments roll up in the fund as contributions and can be used towards new assets?
Whats good and bad about this idea?