Is it possible to obtain a mortgage on a second house with some way utilising the equity in the first house as a deposit?
Furthermore, suppose that you and spouse own 2 houses in joint names [you live in one, she lives in the other], - are the CGT implications different in the following 2 scenarios:
1] you sell both houses, and buy another house, and
2] you sell one house and both parties live in the other.
Any advice that may stop me getting nailed is very welcome :-)
Cheers