I wonder if someone can tell me what the tax position would be for the following?
My wife and I own (as joint tenants) a house which we let. It was once our home. There is no mortgage on it.
We would like that my wife take out a buy-to-let mortgage and for her to 'buy out' my share of the house and for her to become the sole owner of it.
Can anyone tell me:
1) Would this trigger a CGT liability?2) Would stamp duty payable on such a transaction?
Thank you to anyone who can advise.
regards
Robert