Why does a company posting losses (i.e. Vonage) pay taxes?

Why did Vonage have to pay taxes, when their company had a -64,000,000 in EBIT? Companies shouldn't pay taxes for a loss.
PERIOD ENDING            31-Dec-08
Total Revenue            900,120 Cost of Revenue            305,592
Gross Profit            594,528
        Research Development    -         Selling General and Administrative    552,355         Non Recurring    -         Others    48,612
        Total Operating Expenses    -
Operating Income or Loss            -6,439
        Total Other Income/Expenses Net    -27,581         Earnings Before Interest And Taxes    -34,020         Interest Expense    29,878         Income Before Tax    -63,898         Income Tax Expense    678         Minority Interest    -
        Net Income From Continuing Ops    -64,576
        Discontinued Operations    -         Extraordinary Items    -         Effect Of Accounting Changes    -         Other Items    -
Net Income            -64,576 Preferred Stock And Other Adjustments            -
Net Income Applicable To Common Shares            ($64,576)

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You would need to dig around and find out what makes up the tax number. It possible that the tax number is not just federal taxes, and as such, it's highly likely that states have not adopted some of the expensing stances (section 179, 50% expensing, etc) of the feds. So there would be cases that there would be state profits and state taxes but no federal income tax. It may be possible that Vonage is profitable in some states, but not in others, giving rise to state tax but no federal.
So one would have to have the drill-down numbers into what makes up the taxes figure to know the whys.
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Paul Thomas, CPA
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