Across years 2001-05, my then-husband ran up a $118,000 tax debt which, because we are now divorced, is still with us separately ("joint and several liability" rule). But we don't each owe $118K. I took bankruptcy last year and got the oldest back taxes discharged because of their age. I still owe $58K. My ex still owes the full $118K because he did not take bankruptcy -- but plans to file (he just announced) in late April of this year. With his filing he will succeed in discharging all $118K of back taxes he owes because they all will be old enough for discharge by delaying the filing date to late April. Here then are my questions.
In the final divorce decree, my ex promised to pay all back taxes (plus penalty/interest) that we incurred while married. (The final decree happened in August 2008.) Now, five months later, he has not applied any money to the retirement of back taxes. In fact, he has announced (as stated above) that he plans to file Ch. 7 and get all his back taxes discharged because of their antiquity. But what about mine?
Does the fact that he promised in the final decree to pay all back taxes incurred while we were married still hold? With the late-April filing that he intends, he will free himself from all back taxes linked to his name. But, as I understand things, I will still owe the $58K that was left over from my 2008 mid-divorce filing. Is the obligation that he set for himself in the final decree to pay all our back taxes enforcable? Post-April, will I be able to go after him for the back taxes that are still charged to me?
Or (worst possibility) will he be able to name the $58,000 obligation that is supposedly his to pay as just another debt he wants discharged in his petition? In other words, can he use his Ch. 7 petition to void the promise he made in our divorce decree? I'm hoping the answers to these questions will not crush me. But I'm braced.
Thanks for your help.