I know that, in computing the RMD, I can aggregate the value of all traditional IRAs and the total of my withdrawals must be at least the RMD on that aggregate.
The basis in my traditional IRA is zero.
If I roll a chunk of that into an individual retirement annuity(*), by having my IRA custodian transfer the money directly to the insurance company, is that taken out of the RMD equation? In other words, do I compute an RMD based on the money _not_ in the annuity, and no part of the annuity payouts will count as part of that RMD?
(*) A single premium immediate annuity, with a fixed annual payout for my life only, if that matters.