"Andy Pandy" wrote
If that is what it is meant to be, then it is not necessarily the **force of interest**.
"Andy Pandy" wrote
How do you go between your FoI#2(t) function and the corresponding "balance"/"value" function V(t)?
There are clearly defined formulae to get V(t) from FoI(t), and similarly to get FoI(t) from V(t), when FoI is the *true* force of interest.
"Andy Pandy" wrote
I must have missed something - *what* exactly does it "say on the tin"??
"Andy Pandy" wrote
I only noticed you define it as: (1) formula is z(t) = r/(1+r(1-t)); then later by: (2) z(t-dt) = z(t) - z(t)^2dt
If something is just defined by a formula (as here) then of course it is "correct as defined"!
The true force of interest, on the other hand, is defined by its relationship with the value function. The two go together. Given one, you can determine the other.
For instance, if you consider your FoI#2 function to be a *true* force of interest, then its value function is (as shown earlier) :- V(t) = V(0) / [ 1 - i.t/(1+i) ]
This means that the accrued interest, (i.t), is being discounted (for (1-t) years) at a rate of :- (1 + i - i.t)^(1/(1-t)) - 1
At t=0, this is equal to i -- eg 6% [if AER=6%]. At t=0.5, this is equal to (1+i/2)^2-1 - eg 6.09% [if AER=6%]. As t tends towards 1, this is around 6.18% [if AER=6%].