A friend of mine is looking at buying a first floor flat of a large house that has been split into two flats. He's had the valuation and search done but due to the seller being a bit slow his solicitor has only just received the lease. And as a result his solicitor is now advising him to pull out of the deal mainly down to the fact that there
is no landlord for the property. His solicitor is calling this an absentee landlord. Would you consider this reason to pull out of the deal?
Any help appreciated...