In the latter half of last year I did some work for an agency. The contract finished some months ago, and I didn't take any holiday. When I enquired about this, they told me I had X days accrued and that the holiday year runs from when I first started working for them, so when I took up work for them again, I could use the holiday pay I'd already accrued if I wanted any days off.
However, they have since sent me my P45. Does this mean that I'm now entitled to claim from them the value of the holiday accrued directly by cash/cheque/BACS? It would seem that in sending me my P45 they have terminated my employment.
Marcus