I'm at the end of my tether here. I had some LandSec shares acquired in early 1990's. In 2002, according to some obscure (to me) scheme of arrangement, I was allocated some 'A' shares (which were sold) and I understood that this was a return of capital having no CGT implications at that time. This year I sold the ordinary shares which replaced the original ones (7 for every 8). Now, I have not the remotest idea how to calculate the resulting capital gain. OR to be exact, I have SEVERAL ideas as to how to do this - but there must be an official way, and I do not know what that way might be. Eheu! Can anyone here help?
HOMKP!!! (Help: On My Knees Pleading )