Tax Demand

Ferger · 2004-01-25T18:00:51+00:00

I submitted both my and my partner's tax returns for 2002/3 back in August, in the belief that any tax due would be collected via an adjustment to our coding as the returns were in before the end of September. Both of us received demands for payment, in my partners case on Friday, mine a couple of weeks ago. (Bit rich on my partner, I tell them how much she owes in August and they get round to making a demand for it a week before it's due!) I phoned the tax office when my demand came in, and they were happy to collect via my tax code, but completely evasive as to why they hadn't done this in the first place. Now I'm going to have to do the same for my partner. Have I misunderstood something, or this just IR being crap as per usual? F

Jan 25, 2004 21 Replies

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Tim 22 years ago

"Ronald Raygun" wrote

So, if my electricity goes off for 12 hours from 7am one (work)day, can I claim compensation for loss of business profits from the electricity board - even though they say "not until it's been off for 18 hours"?

If installing a piece of software "breaks" an important other piece of software on a PC, causing an hour's work to re-install & configure the important software, can I claim compensation from the suppliers of the new software - even though their product licence says "no liability to consequential damages"?

Are you sure that a clause providing for no compensation is voidable??

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Ronald Raygun 22 years ago

In principle, yes. Read the UCT stuff yourself. In practice, it would be up to a court to decide on the extent of any unfairness. As for the IR, who knows, there might be exceptions in the UCT stuff especially for them. :-(

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