"Mike Scott" wrote
He could simply prove that he was elsewhere at the time of the alleged transaction, to combat the "used himself" accusation.
If the bank asserts that the cardholder gave away the PIN to an accomplice (who they say then made the transaction) - well, without any reasonable proof that the cardholder & actual PIN user were together on this fraud, then it is no more reasonable to suggest that the cardholder must have divulged the PIN than it is to suggest the bank (or someone at the bank) had divulged the PIN!! Before you say "that's impossible" - what could possibly stop someone in the bank's post room opening outgoing PIN notifications??! [The notification shows both the cardholder's name & address, the PIN, and they know which bank it is ... ]