Hello All,
Can someone confirm that I have my ideas about this situation correct.
In Sept 1996 My Father In Law inherited a house (built by Mother In laws Father in their back garden) . . . No inheritance tax was payable as it was below the threshold. The In laws have subsequently let the property and the tenant now wishes to purchase the house.
As I understand it they have to pay CGT on the difference between the Sale Price and the valuation when they acquired the house. This gain is reduced by an indexation allowance (acquired prior to 1998), possibly Letting Allowance, any costs associated with the sale, and finally Taper relief at 40%.
The net gain is then split between the two of them and after deducting their AEA the liability for CGT is calculated based on their income liable to income tax (One is a pensioner). at the following scale
10% - Less than £1960 20% _ Total Income Less than top of band (£30500) Not charged at 10% 40% - Above the Basic Rate LimitIs this roughly right? They are going to see their accountant but I would like them to have a rough idea of what is involved before going.
Cheers
Tony