Hi folks,
I would appreciate some advice and help in choosing between what seem like 2 mortgages with similar features and costs from the same lender.
Having considered my circumstances and requirements I have narrowed done my search (for a better remortgage deal) to the following two deals, both from the Woolwich. (These were based on a search of the excellent Charcol Online website. I have also searched the moneyfacts.co.uk website)
My time horizon is two years after which I plan to review and remortgage again if required. My key requirement is not to have any early redemption penalties whatsoever nor any tie ins.
Product A. Discounted Variable Mortgage - 2.25% off the Woolwich SVR (Standard Variable Rate) for 2 years Current Woolwich SVR is 5.54%. Therefore current mortgage rate is 3.29% Initial Setup fees (Valuation; Application; Legal etc.) = approx £750 Total cost of mortgage over 2 years at current rates: approx £12,600
Product B.Discounted Tracker Mortgage; Barclays Bank Base Rate + 1.5% for life of the mortgage, with a discount of 1.7% for the first 2 years.(Note: This tracks the Barclays Base Rate and *not* the Bank of England Base Rate). With the current Barclays Bank base rate of 3.5%, the current mortgage rate works out to 3.30% Initial Setup fees (Valuation; Application; Legal etc.) = approx £1000 Total cost of mortgage over 2 years at current rates: approx £12,900
Both the above have no tie ins whatsoever nor any early redemption charges.
As I see it, the key difference seems to be that 'A' is sort of 'tracking' the SVR and 'B' the Base Rate.
Current Base Rate is 3.5% and the Woolwich SVR is 5.54%. So the current SVR 'differential' is 2.04%
So the key question is: Will the Woolwich SVR 'differential' (i.e. the difference between the SVR and the base rate) increase or reduce, assuming the base rates increase in the future ? Any views/comments on what the general industry behaviour is likely to be in this regard ?
Having looked at the previous history of Base rates and SVRs it seems that as interest rates increase, the SVR 'differential' goes down. As such it seems that mortgage 'A' would be a better bet.
Have I missed something obvious in my above analysis ?
I appreciate that past history is no guarantee of future behaviour but I would appreciate views as to whether both are equally good or whether one is more preferable to the other. (I am happy to fork out the extra £250 now if 'B' is considered a better option.)
Any advice/views/comments/suggestions gratefully received.
If you prefer, please reply directly via email to adam_111 snipped-for-privacy@yahoo.co.uk
Many thanks, Adam