Converting a Finder's Fee into Commission

Nov 21, 2004 7 Replies

I "delivery drive" and get paid a Finder's Fee if I take the trouble to stop and attract a new client.



Finder's Fee (£n) is calculated as:



As soon as my firm has made £n profit from this new client I am given £n.



There are several flaws in this method. Attracting big customers, where you get fobbed off at the door and people are always "on the phone" is a lot harder than attracting small customers where the bloke is (generally) sitting there having a cup of tea and you make the deal in - literally - minutes.



Also there is no incentive for me to keep customers happy, once I have signed them up they become a nuisance, big customers more of a nuisance than little customers because I will have to deliver to them every day.



It would be better for everyone if I was working on commission, being rewarded for the good business I am attracting and rewarded for keeping our customers happy. But how does an £n Finder's Fee convert into a commission and how can I be incentivised to go after bigger customers?



[Trivia: What is our fantastic product which looks great and is (generally) far cheaper than anything anyone else can offer?

Clue 1: The market is dominated by one company who has 50% of it and who sell their (crappy) product for less than it costs us to buy in raw materials.



Clue 2: I was trying to sell our £8 product last week to someone who was proud to tell me that he was putting his shoddy home-made £2 product in a prominent position on a drop-dead gorgeous £120K object]


Thats very generous,since your firm wont be better off at all.

"Tumbleweed" wrote

No, quite the opposite - if they get that far (making n profit), then they now have a new client on the books to make further profits from. If they make less than n profit, and don't pay anything for the initial "lead" - then they're quids-in!

Exactly Tim. (Ignoring the under £50 situation) at present:

1) Customer is 100% mine *before* we make £n profit 2) Customer is 100% the firm's *after* we make £n profit

I want to share the customer with the firm for as long as I'm with the firm, he's my customer after all and they wouldn't have him if I hadn't got him. When I leave they inherit my customers.

Eh?

*They* sell their product less that your raw materials cost and yet you are *cheaper* than anyone else?

The great thing about words is that if you leave some of them out you

*can* affect their meaning. If you take the phrase "(generally) far cheaper" and replace it with the phrase "far cheaper", then I agree it does mean something different :)

"Troy Steadman" wrote

Ah, but even the word "generally" doesn't help you here - because according to you, *generally*, it *is* cheaper elsewhere - your main competitor (as you say) dominates the market with 50% of it and is cheaper!

Au contraire Tim, only one of our multitude of competitors is cheaper per se and since they are mostly selling a substandard product it might be argued that *none* of them are cheaper. Cheaper is a word that is subjective and has various meanings in various contexts. I have erred on the side of caution by choosing another subjective word "generally" which I think every dictionary writer in the world would agree is precisely the correct word to use.

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