Credit Card Debt on Death - advice req'd

Require your assistance for clear, accurate advice on the following.

Details : Father in law died 2 days ago. Born in & lived in Scotland at time of death. He was married and living with his wife. Looking through his papers today with my brother in law to seek out insurance policies. Discovered Credit Card & Personal Loan debt (no joint c/card accounts or loans) to the sum of approx. 3500. Insurance likely to pay out just short of funeral arrangement costs.

We have not found the Terms & Conditions of the C/Cards or Loan yet. Meanwhile, can someone please advise if the Credit Card/Loan Companies are entitled to full payment from his widow, bearing in mind that there were not joint debts?

If they are not entitled to full payment, is it reasonable (or indeed required) to offer them pro-rata payment from the balance left after deducting the cost of funeral. e.g. Funeral expenses of say 2500, paid by insurance policies and from his bank account leaves approx. 700. Do the Credit Card Companies have claim to this 700 balance? & if so do they write off the outstanding sums as unrecoverable?

TIA Haggis_n_Neeps

Reply to
Haggis_n_Neeps
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The widow is not liable (as not a joint a/c), but the estate is.

Are there no other assets - house, car etc?

-- Doug Ramage

Reply to
Doug Ramage

Deceased has Motability Car, however they will arrange for this to be picked up/returned.

There is a house. It is owned outright in both names - no mortgage. Widow lives it. Can the C/Card & Loan Companies force sale or but burden on title.

Again, TIA and for replies to date. Haggis_n_Neeps

Reply to
Haggis_n_Neeps

Whether it forms part of the estate will depend upon whether they are "Joint tenants" or "Tenants in common". (No I don't know how you can tell what they were).

If they are Joint tenants the widow will automatically own the whole house on the death of the other owner and the house will not become part of the estate.

If they are Tenants in common then the half of the house that the deceased person owned will form part of his estate and any creditors will have a claim against its value.

For a couple of hundred pounds, No. They will probably write it off, but if they do have a claim against the value of the house they might persue it but will never manage to force a house sale

tim

Reply to
tim

In message , tim writes

That's true in England but AIUI Scots law is applicable in this case and it might not be true there.

Reply to
Mike

But it is.

The terminology is slightly different but the effect is the same. The usual way, in Scotland, in which a married couple owns their house is the one in which the half house does not pass by inheritance but by survivorship, and so does not form part of the estate.

Reply to
Ronald Raygun

But assets passed to a survivor by being held as joint tenants might in principle still attract Inheritence Tax - not in this case because they were married, but if they were living together but unmarried for example. Am I not correct? You don't need probate to get control of the asset but you do still pay IHT on it unless yo uare exempt by being a spouse or by the estate being less than the nil band.

Robert

Reply to
Robert Laws

Indeed.

Reply to
Ronald Raygun

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