In a former life I worked for a university and contributed to the USS final salary pension scheme which, once I'm old enough, will pay me a pension of 22/80 of my (indexed) leaving salary, plus a tax free lump sum of three years' worth of that pension.
For part of that life I also made AVCs to the scheme promoted by Prudential. This isn't a "true" AVC scheme since it doesn't directly enhance the USS pension (such as by buying added years of service), but it's stand-alone and under the old regime I would have had to buy an annuity with 75% of the fund value at the relevant time.
Prudential have just written to say that one of the effects of A-day is that I "could potentially" take my whole accumulated AVC fund as a TFLS because under the new rules we can take 25% of our overall pension pot. They weren't very specific about the details, but the idea is that the "overall pension pot" for these purposes will include the capital value of my USS pension.
I was wondering how this capital value would be established. Will there be some kind of official nominal annuity rate applied in reverse to my final salary pension?
Suppose that my USS pension will be £X (so that I will receive from USS a TFLS of 3x£X), and suppose that the value of my AVC fund is £Y (so that under the old rules I would have received from Prudential a TFLS of £Y/4 and would have had to spend (3/4)x£Y on buying an annuity. Is it the case that £X will be deemed to equal Ax£Z where A is a typical annuity rate?
If so, then presumably my pension pot would be deemed to be worth PP = (3+1/A)x£X + £Y, and my TFLS entitlement would be 25% of that total. So provided that 3x£X+£Y is no more than 25% of PP, I could receive all of £Y tax free and would not need any annuity at all.
Would A be likely to be in line with typical retirement annuity rates at the time?