I'm not sure I buy that. If a staff member is willing to process a refund without actually returning the goods, then that's engaging in pretty obviously dishonest behaviour. If they are prepared to be that openly dishonest, surely it would be just as easy for them to take the goods off the shelves in the first place without paying for them?
Of course, that was my point. It was an example of the type of fraud which could be avoided by forcing refunds to go to a customer's card.
Well, walking out of the store with a trolley full of goods and no receipt would be a great deal more risky than having a receipt "proving" the goods had been paid for with cash. It seems easy enough to process a refund through a till while no-one's looking because they're all busy doing the same thing, in other words it's not necessarily as open as you think, it's easy to do surreptitiously. If no-one actually performs thorough checking to make sure every processed refund actually corresponds to an item in the pile of returned goods, which are likely all just to go to the bargain basement, this could be very tempting for the refunds staff.
OK, I guess that's a fair point. But I'm still not convinced that's the reason why they have the system in the first place. I still think it's far more likely that their IT staff are a bunch of fuckwits who don't have the wit to design a system that makes things easier for the customers while maintaining reasonable levels of security.
As a general principle, refunds on card payments do have to go back to the card rather than being made via some other method (such as cash or cheques). That's a rule imposed by the card companies, who usually cite the money laundering regulations as a reason for it (as it stops someone buying things with a stolen card, then getting a cash refund after the card stops working, thus ending up with untraceable cash and no awkward goods to have to store and/or fence).
The issue here, though, is whether an exchange counts as a refund. This is a separate matter, and the card companies certainly don't insist that an exchange must be treated as a refund and new purchase. That's the retailer's decision, and not all of them do. It's not necessarily even the case that Homebase do - we've assumed that they do, as we can't see any other reason why they might need the original card in order to process an exchange, but they could well have some obscure reason of their own that hasn't occurred to us. But whatever the reason, it's their reason, not one that's imposed on them by a third party.
I've always wondered - why do they need the customer to sign / enter PIN for a refund, anyway?
You can understand needing authorisation to 'debit' a card, but what's the point in getting the customer's authority (signature or PIN) to put the money back?! [Surely it should be the shop, not the customer, giving authorisation for the refund...]
Think of the bank account as being like a strongbox without a coin slot such as you might find in a piggy-bank. You need to unlock and open it not just if you want to take stuff out but also when putting it in. The PIN does the unlocking.
At 14:18:34 on 03/01/2008, Tim delighted uk.finance by announcing:
CNP transactions don't require the cardholder to sign or enter their PIN, for obvious reasons. Merchants performing these transactions have alternative processes to follow.
Yes, of course, but that still leaves the question as to *why* those "alternative processes" require the customer to 'authorise' a refund. The CNP example that I gave simply shows that Ronald's "slotless strongbox requiring unlocking" idea is invalid.
So - what *is* the reason for needing the customer's signature / PIN for a refund (ie, why is that requirement within the "alternative processes" that you mentioned)? [We can see (above) that "money laundering" isn't valid...]
At 10:13:31 on 04/01/2008, Tim delighted uk.finance by announcing:
How can you see that "money laundering" isn't valid? How does the card (or issuer) know that the money being put back is the same money that was taken out?
Well, Ronald agreed with my comment that "It wouldn't have been 'laundered' at all!" when he said "Quite" above - and he's a clued-up kinda guy...
"Alex" wrote
Eh? "Money" in this context is just numbers in computers, after all!
Anyway, to throw your own question back at you, how would "... the card (or issuer) know that the money being put back is the same money that was taken out...", if it was a *CNP* transaction, and the customer didn't give a signature / PIN?
If a refund *could* constitute money laundering, wouldn't that mean that it's OK to money launder with CNP transactions? :-(
Hmmm. CNP appears to be much more "public" than CP - why would that less secure system (CNP) have a special key to a 'back door', without the more secure systems also having access to it...?
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