"Peter Saxton" wrote
That'll be *solely* the wife, then! The money would have been immediately transferred into the wife's savings a/c if it had been paid on time, so
*only* she is the one "who was deprived of the money"."Peter Saxton" wrote
... which would be no tax because she is a non-taxpayer (within personal allowance).
Did you really mean that?
You are wrong. The interest was due to the wife. It doesn't matter who would have banked any cheque or what would have happened to the money after being received.
"Peter Saxton" wrote
You are saying I'm wrong, but then agreeing it's "due to the wife"???!
Sorry 50% to each.
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