Dear all, Hope you can help :-)
I am based in Germany. A supplier of mine states that he has an office in Germany (and refers to an address here) although he is currently located in Spain. In his invoice for services rendered, he charges VAT and the invoice is addressed from his German office. He has not produced a German VAT no. even upon request (but he does have a German income tax no.). I am to pay to his account in Spain.
He insists that this is not irregular.
Is he right?
Thank you,
-N-