Hi,
Suppose that I have 2 lots of shares, SharesA and SharesB (which I do). I've had them for many years, so they have a deal of indexation and taper relief. They are different, by the way.
Time to sell them, if possible, due to that berk Brown !!!
Suppose that I transfer SharesB to my wife, who sells them. Suppose that I sell SharesA.
Suppose now that I purchase SharesB, and that she purchases SharesA, as simultaneously as is possible.
Have we washed the CGT out - or does there exist a catch?
Thanks in advance about this.
GPG